posted on October 11, 2000 04:40:48 PM
I have a buyer in their EOA email to me who requested that I ship with an invoice (btw I always provide receipt) and then I will receive my money.
I have already informed the buyer (using customer service with a smile) that I need to rcve payment before shipping.
I will not ship without money in hand so to speak, but any thoughts on this matter? Just wondering what some of you thought of this, that's all.
posted on October 11, 2000 04:44:12 PM
No way would I ship without receiving payment first. Unless it was a VERY good repeat customer.
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The only place you'll find success before work is in the dictionary.
posted on October 11, 2000 04:50:47 PM
I buy and sell on Ebay, I wouldn't expect a mail order house, department store or an Ebay seller to send me my merchandise, before it was paid for. That would be a great way to buy a vacation, cruise, or house, wouldn't it?
Yes, in my opinion there are times when to bend the tos in order to provide customer service, but this isn't one of them.
I wouldn't even ship without payment with a returning customer or even a relative (which I have had relatives bid and win some of my auctions). I treat all the same regardless of number of feedback and so on.
posted on October 11, 2000 06:28:09 PM
I have always shipped to business customers on demand with the clear understanding that I am NOT offering 30 day net. The only time I have ever been burned was recently when a customer called our home and my Mother-in-Law who has Alzhiemer's answered the phone and kept him from faxing his credit card info to us. There is a sign on the phone for her to leave it alone but she got past understanding that. I was so embarrassed I shipped and left him a message to leave me his info on the toll - free fax # I got to keep that from happening again. Now he does not answer my mail so I am out $189.00. I can live with it. It is the only time in 2 years anyone has shorted me. Anyone got a collection agency?
